In the past, when setting up RT 3.4, 3.6, and 3.8 I used the base domain
for our company when configuring RT and postfix. For instance, example.com.
We configured Exchange (2007) to relay email destined for
rt-comment@example.com and rt@example.com to the RT server. This worked
fine.
I am now setting up a new RT server for another company using 4.2 and have
once again configured the domain as example.com.
I have asked the admins with whom I’m working to configure Exchange (2010)
to relay all email for rt@example.com to the RT server. They are telling me
this is not working and instead I should be configuring RT to use
rt.example.com.
I have found online in the RT wiki that this is a documented method of
configuring things, but I’m a little confused. It doesn’t seem like it
should be necessary if Exchange is configured to relay properly and as long
as the domain is within that of the Exchange server it shouldn’t be an
issue.
Am I wrong? Is it absolutely necessary to configure a subdomain that only
RT belongs to?
-Mathew
“When you do things right, people won’t be sure you’ve done anything at
all.” - God; Futurama
“We’ll get along much better once you accept that you’re wrong and neither
am I.” - Me